In recent months, the CFP Board has faced some high-profile cases that have tested its definitions of what it means to be a "fee only" advisor. First there was the incident with Alan Goldfarb, and more recently (though dating back to an earlier incident) a lawsuit filed by Jeffrey and Kimberly Camarda. In both cases, the incidents revolved around situations where advisors were providing services on a "fee-only" basis to clients, but also separately held a financial interest in a broker-dealer and/or an insurance agency that at least "could" potentially generate commissions. Although the CFP Board's current compensation disclosure requirements have actually been in effect since 2008, the cases have highlighted the complex realities of how many financial advisors structure their businesses, and tested where the line should be drawn regarding what does and does not constitute "fee only" compensation.
While it's hard to fault the essence of what the CFP Board is trying to accomplish with its definitions - that advisors should only describe themselves as "fee only" if they truly, solely receive compensation from fees - a broad interpretation that compensation includes not only what is received but what the advisor or a related party are "entitled to receive" has arguably narrowed the interpretation of "fee only" beyond the point it was ever intended. In fact, the CFP Board's current rules appear so tight that they may actually invalidate as much as 5% of NAPFA's own membership.
At the core of the issue is the CFP Board's viewpoint that "commission" compensation should include not only what a client does pay, but what a client could pay to the advisor or a related party. As a result, a wide range of advisors whose clients truly have only ever paid a fee to anyone must declare themselves to be "commission and fee" for the sole reason that someday, somehow, a client could pay a commission to the advisor or a related party (due to a license the advisor holds, or other advisors under the same employment agreement), even if no client ever has, or is even intended to - a standard that's virtually impossible for any but a small subset of independent privately-owned RIAs to meet.
Instead, perhaps it's time for a simpler, more straightforward definition of fee-only compensation - that "fee only" be based not on what a client could pay, but what the client actually does pay. If the client really does pay a commission to an advisor or a related party, then the advisor should be required to describe themselves as "commission and fee" accordingly. But if the client really, truly does only pay fees to the advisor and pays no commissions at all to the advisor or any related party, the advisor is permitted to call themselves "fee only" instead. Or viewed more simply - unlike the CFP Board's current rules, advisors should always be able to rely on the fact that no client has ever actually paid a commission to the advisor or any related party as a defense to calling themselves "fee only," if that is in fact the case.